Let me begin by pointing out that your question is based on several assumptions or presuppositions. It presumes that the Torah was written by G-d, that the Talmud was written by rabbis, and that either or both have some level of authority. You are referencing a distinction between D'Oraita (from the Torah) and D'Rabbanan (from the Rabbis).
You are referencing a distinction between D'Oraita (from the Torah) and D'Rabbanan (from the Rabbis).
There have been those in history who rejected outright all material that was not D'Oraita. They were called the Karaites. They wanted to live specifically and only according to the Torah. As time and history moved on, and the world of the Torah was replaced by the world of the rabbis and then in turn by later realities, it was necessary for Judaism to face and adapt to the new reality and to deal with it. Failure to deal with the reality in which you live leads to extinction both in history and in evolution. The Karaites are effectively not a factor in Judaism today because they did not adapt. The rabbis found ways to stay true to the core of Judaism while adapting to the changing reality around them.
To answer you more clearly, I will speak hypothetically from the position of the most ‘extreme’ Reform position. (I would point out to you that this is not the position of all in the Reform movement, nor do I believe that it speaks for a majority today [nor is it my own view]). This is more in line with the thinkers who formulated Classical Reform - itself an adaptation to a particular time and reality.
Viewing your question from that perspective, your question begs a question. Who says that the Torah was given by G-d at To elaborate, many people following the Classical Reform view within the Reform movement would accept the proposition that the Torah was written by people (prior to the time of the rabbis, far earlier than the Talmud), but is still of human origin, as is the Talmud.
To elaborate, many people following the Classical Reform view within the Reform movement would accept the proposition that the Torah was written by people (prior to the time of the rabbis, far earlier than the Talmud), but is still of human origin, as is the Talmud.
Within that viewpoint, this is not a question that has much relevance. Classical Reform holds that we are not obliged to accept that the Torah was divinely written, nor that the Talmud is anything more than an attempt to further the social and legal system developed by people to provide order and stability. Why worry about the relative weight of the components of the system, or about the level of authority of one component in regard to another? Why would we ‘resist’ the value or applicability of the Talmud, when it is not seen as binding law or as carrying any legal authority for Reform Jews? Why be concerned about how much weight is given to the Talmud relative to the Torah, when the Torah is (itself) not viewed as being of divine origin, or having any special legal applicability? In fact, neither has any more or less weight for this purpose, according to this viewpoint.
Other responses from within the Reform ambit might well look more like those that you will receive from a Conservative or even an Orthodox perspective, accepting that Torah is divinely inspired, or divine in origin, and that Talmud is the combination of the Oral Law (oral Torah, divinely inspired or given) together with the interpretation of it, so it has similar weight and value to the Torah. It is only within that portion of the spectrum of Reform thought that your question has relevance.
For those who see Torah (and even more so, Talmud) as having divine inspiration or origin, there would be no need or reason to question the authority of the Torah or Talmud, or to concern themselves with the distinctions overly much. Today, the distinction of D'Oraita and D'Rabbanan seems only to have applicability in some matters of fine interpretation of Halachah. There is can matter greatly, but for most it is not an everyday concern.